Pisqa’ 268336H:262-263;JN2:204-205. 1. “Should a man take337Heb: yiqakh. The root, l-q-kh, can mean “to take up” an object or to “purchase/take in marriage”. In the present context, the meaning is obviously “to acquire for the purpose of marriage.”a woman, and mount her”338Heb: ba`alah; the root, b-`-l, connotes “to rule over,” “to dominate,” “to possess,” as well as “to marry.” As a verb. bo`eil includes within its semantic range the physical act by which a man possesses a woman, whether or not marriage is the intention of the male partner. (Dt.24:1). This teaches that a woman may be acquired339Heb: niqneit; the root, q-n-h, has a broad range of meanings: “to acquire,” “to create.”with money.340Cf. M. Qid. 1:1. Now,we might reason [otherwise]: Just as a Hebrew slave-girl, who cannot be acquired by mounting, may be acquired with money [in purchase of her freedom]— isn’t it reasonable that a [free] woman, who is acquired by mounting, should also be acquired with money? Proof [for the opposing view] is provided by the rule for the childless widow.341Heb: yevamah. This Hebrew term refers to the childless wife whose husband has died leaving no heir. Under the levirate rule, the surviving wife has the duty to marry her brother-in-law (the levir or yavam) and produce a child who can inherit the deceased. She can be released from this obligation at the discretion of the levir, who can divorce her by a public declaration, after which she is free to marry as she chooses. See Dt. 25:5-10 and Pisqa’ot 288-291. For she is acquired by mounting, [at the discretion of her brother-in-law,] but may not be acquired with money. Thus, don’t be surprised that even though a free woman is acquired by mounting, she may not be acquired with money! [But] the Teaching states [the opposite]: “Should a man take a woman and mount her” (Dt.24:1). This teaches that a woman is acquired [first] with money [and the mounting is only a secondary act of acquisition].
2. “And mount her” (Dt.24:1)— This teaches that a woman is acquired by mounting.342Cf. M. Qid.1:1. Now, reason might lead [to the opposite conclusion:] Just as a childless widow, who cannot be acquired with money, may be acquired by mounting— isn’t it reasonable that a free woman, who is acquired with money, should also be acquired by mounting? Proof [for the opposing view] is provided by the rule for the Hebrew slave-girl. For she is acquired with money, But may not be acquired by mounting. Thus don’t be surprised that even though a free woman is acquired with money, she may not be acquired by mounting! The Teaching states [the opposite]: “And mount her” (Dt.24:1)— This teaches that a woman is acquired [primarily] by mounting.
3. Now, how do I know that A woman is also acquired with a document?343Heb: shtar. Cf. M. Qid.1:1. It’s only reasonable! Just as money, having no power to expel her [from a marriage], can yet acquire her in marriage— isn’t it only reasonable that a document, which can expel her [from a marriage], should also have the power to acquire her in marriage? Not at all! If you apply the rule for money, which can acquire consecrated items or Second-tithe produce, would you apply that same rule to a document, which has no power to acquire either consecrated items or Second-tithe produce? The Teaching states: “Then he shall write for her a writ of separation,344Heb: sefer keritut The biblical “writ of separation” is the foundation of the rabbinic get (“document of divorce”). For details, see Pisqa’ 270. and place it in her hand, and send her from his house, so then she can go out and be with another man” (Dt.24:1-2)— the verse compares her being with this one to her going out from that one. Thus, just as her going out from this one requires a document, so, too, her being with another one also requires a document!
(דברים כד א) כִּי יִקַּח אִישׁ אִשָּׁה וּבְעָלָהּ, מְלַמֵּד שֶׁהָאִשָּׁה נִקְנֵית בְּכֶסֶף. שֶׁהָיָה בַדִּין: וּמָה אָמָה הָעִבְרִיָּה שֶׁאֵינָהּ נִקְנֵית בִּבְעִילָה נִקְנֵית בְּכֶסֶף, אִשָּׁה שֶׁנִּקְנֵית בִּבְעִילָה אֵינוֹ דִין שֶׁתְּהֵא נִקְנֵית בְּכֶסֶף? יְבָמָה תּוֹכִיחַ, שֶׁנִּקְנֵית בִּבְעִילָה וְאֵינָהּ נִקְנֵית בְּכֶסֶף, וְאַף אַתָּה אַל תִּתְמַהּ עַל הָאִשָּׁה, שֶׁאַף עַל פִּי שֶׁנִּקְנֵית בִּבְעִילָה שֶׁלֹּא תְהֵא נִקְנֵית בְּכֶסֶף; תַּלְמוּד לוֹמַר: כִּי יִקַּח אִישׁ אִשָּׁה, מְלַמֵּד שֶׁהָאִשָּׁה נִקְנֵית בְּכֶסֶף.
Pisqa’ 268336H:262-263;JN2:204-205.
1. “Should a man take337Heb: yiqakh. The root, l-q-kh, can mean “to take up” an object or to “purchase/take in marriage”. In the present context, the meaning is obviously “to acquire for the purpose of marriage.”a woman, and mount her”338Heb: ba`alah; the root, b-`-l, connotes “to rule over,” “to dominate,” “to possess,” as well as “to marry.” As a verb. bo`eil includes within its semantic range the physical act by which a man possesses a woman, whether or not marriage is the intention of the male partner. (Dt.24:1).
This teaches that
a woman may be acquired339Heb: niqneit; the root, q-n-h, has a broad range of meanings: “to acquire,” “to create.” with money.340Cf. M. Qid. 1:1.
Now,we might reason [otherwise]:
Just as a Hebrew slave-girl,
who cannot be acquired by mounting,
may be acquired with money
[in purchase of her freedom]—
isn’t it reasonable that
a [free] woman, who is acquired by mounting,
should also be acquired with money?
Proof [for the opposing view] is provided
by the rule for the childless widow.341Heb: yevamah. This Hebrew term refers to the childless wife whose husband has died leaving no heir. Under the levirate rule, the surviving wife has the duty to marry her brother-in-law (the levir or yavam) and produce a child who can inherit the deceased. She can be released from this obligation at the discretion of the levir, who can divorce her by a public declaration, after which she is free to marry as she chooses. See Dt. 25:5-10 and Pisqa’ot 288-291.
For she is acquired by mounting,
[at the discretion of her brother-in-law,]
but may not be acquired with money.
Thus, don’t be surprised that
even though a free woman is acquired by mounting,
she may not be acquired with money!
[But] the Teaching states [the opposite]:
“Should a man take a woman and mount her” (Dt.24:1).
This teaches that
a woman is acquired [first] with money
[and the mounting is only a secondary act of acquisition].
וּבְעָלָהּ, מְלַמֵּד שֶׁהָאִשָּׁה נִקְנֵית בִּבְעִילָה. שֶׁהָיָה בַדִּין, וּמָה יְבָמָה שֶׁאֵין נִקְנֵית בְּכֶסֶף נִקְנֵית בִּבְעִילָה, אִשָּׁה שֶׁנִּקְנֵית בְּכֶסֶף אֵינוֹ דִין שֶׁתְּהֵא נִקְנֵית בִּבְעִילָה? אָמָה הָעִבְרִיָּה תּוֹכִיחַ, שֶׁנִּקְנֵית בְּכֶסֶף וְאֵין נִקְנֵית בִּבְעִילָה, וְאַף אַתָּה אַל תִּתְמַהּ עַל הָאִשָּׁה, שֶׁאַף עַל פִּי שֶׁנִּקְנֵית בְּכֶסֶף שֶׁלֹּא תְהֵא נִקְנֵית בִּבְעִילָה; תַּלְמוּד לוֹמַר: וּבְעָלָהּ, מְלַמֵּד שֶׁהָאִשָּׁה נִקְנֵית בִּבְעִילָה.
2. “And mount her” (Dt.24:1)—
This teaches that
a woman is acquired by mounting.342Cf. M. Qid.1:1.
Now, reason might lead [to the opposite conclusion:]
Just as a childless widow,
who cannot be acquired with money,
may be acquired by mounting—
isn’t it reasonable that
a free woman, who is acquired with money,
should also be acquired by mounting?
Proof [for the opposing view] is provided
by the rule for the Hebrew slave-girl.
For she is acquired with money,
But may not be acquired by mounting.
Thus don’t be surprised that
even though a free woman is acquired with money,
she may not be acquired by mounting!
The Teaching states [the opposite]:
“And mount her” (Dt.24:1)—
This teaches that
a woman is acquired [primarily] by mounting.
מִנַּיִן אַף בִּשְׁטָר? דִּין הוּא: וּמַה כֶּסֶף שֶׁאֵינוֹ מוֹצִיא הֲרֵי הוּא קוֹנֶה, שְׁטָר שֶׁהוּא מוֹצִיא אֵינוֹ דִין שֶׁיְּהֵא קוֹנֶה? לֹא אִם אָמַרְתָּ בְּכֶסֶף שֶׁקּוֹנֶה הֶקְדֵּשׁוֹת וּמַעֲשֵׂר שֵׁנִי, תֹּאמַר בִּשְׁטָר שֶׁאֵין קוֹנֶה הֶקְדֵּשׁוֹת וּמַעֲשֵׂר שֵׁנִי. תַּלְמוּד לוֹמַר: וְכָתַב לָהּ סֵפֶר כְּרִיתֻת וְנָתַן בְּיָדָהּ וְשִׁלְּחָהּ מִבֵּיתוֹ, וְיָצְאָה וְהָיְתָה לְאִישׁ אַחֵר, מַקִּישׁ הֲוָיָתָהּ לָזֶה לִיצִיאָתָהּ מִזֶּה: מַה יְצִיאָתָהּ מִזֶּה בִּשְׁטָר, אַף הֲוָיָתָהּ לָזֶה בִּשְׁטָר.
3. Now, how do I know that
A woman is also acquired with a document?343Heb: shtar. Cf. M. Qid.1:1.
It’s only reasonable!
Just as money,
having no power to expel her [from a marriage],
can yet acquire her in marriage—
isn’t it only reasonable that
a document,
which can expel her [from a marriage],
should also have the power to acquire her in marriage?
Not at all!
If you apply the rule for money,
which can acquire consecrated items
or Second-tithe produce,
would you apply that same rule to a document,
which has no power to acquire either
consecrated items or Second-tithe produce?
The Teaching states:
“Then he shall write for her a writ of separation,344Heb: sefer keritut The biblical “writ of separation” is the foundation of the rabbinic get (“document of divorce”). For details, see Pisqa’ 270.
and place it in her hand, and send her from his house,
so then she can go out and be with another man” (Dt.24:1-2)—
the verse compares her being with this one
to her going out from that one.
Thus, just as her going out from this one
requires a document,
so, too, her being with another one
also requires a document!